Friday, February 13, 2015

Philosophy, An Immoral Action, and the Good Will

In just the couple of classes we have had about Immanuel Kant, we have learned a lot about his view on philosophy, an immoral action, and the Good Will. For one, we know that there are three major branches of philosophy: logic, physics, and ethics. Physics and ethics are both formal and empirical meaning that these two branches are mostly derived from experience. Logic is strictly formal. Logic deals more with reason and thinking.

Kant then goes on to say that an immoral action is an irrational action therefore implying that a moral action is a rational action. This led me to question if this statement is absolutely true or not. In the case of deontology, anything we do that is morally good is done for the sake of duty. Any good, moral actions we commit are good because its intentions are good. For example, stealing food to feed a family is not an immoral action because the person's intentions are good. If anything the person's actions will just be seen as illegal. On the other hand, if a person is planning to steal food or some money with the intent of killing anyone who stands in his way, the action is considered to be immoral. However, does this mean that the action is irrational.

This man is going to steal something that he needs. He can't rely on anyone else to help him so he tries to take matters into his own hands. He's desperate and willing to kill anyone who stands in his way because he knows that no one would be willing to supply him with what he needs to survive. If he tries to steal from someone and that person catches him, they will most likely try to approach the man and won't even think about trying to reason with him. Let's be honest, when a person is trying to steal from us we won't  to say,"Look, you don't have to steal from me. If you want something from me, just ask me." We would either try to pursue him ourselves or call the police. If the robber can rationalize the possibility of that happening and try to be prepared for it, then can it really be called an irrational action. 

2 comments:

  1. What confuses me about the person stealing food for his family scenario is that if the "law" is the most right in a society, then not abiding by that law would be wrong. Therefore, being in the wrong would make one immoral, but by it being morally right to help one's family out by any means would still make the action as a whole partially wrong according to the law. So, Is it possible to have a "law" in place that doesn't have such a loophole like that one? (rhetorical)

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  2. Even though he is stealing food for the sake of his family, I still believe that it is morally wrong to do. Stealing is against the law and should be frowned upon to steal. There are other ways to get what you need besides stealing from others. I think that even though he is helping his family, it is wrong to do.

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